Message Board

Israel Couldn't Keep The Law--Only Grace Would Save Them Too

Michael — Sat, 19 Jul 2008 05:39:32 GMT

Dear Itchyear Board,

I wanted to ask a question about the assumption that God's relationship to man changes. My undersanding of dispensationalism is that God works different ways at different times. Most midacts pastors seem to think that it was through obedience to law in the OT and faith in Christ alone in the NT. A works vs. faith distinction. But I don't understand this--we know that Israel could not keep the law even if it tried! God always had to step-in and offer them grace for their offenses. Why do dispensationalists think that God relates to men differently at different times when the all-time-necessary-intervention by God to men is through grace? Since grace was always necessary for forgiveness, why isn't the age of grace not only now but was there in the OT as well?

Thanks for your help,

Michael

How many years was it?

BradC — Tue, 01 Jul 2008 02:12:29 GMT

How many years was it from pentacost until the conversion of Cornelius?

Tithing

JTKMX — Mon, 30 Jun 2008 04:12:38 GMT

I have heard it preached:

We are not under the tithe in this present dispensation.
We are commanded to give 10% of our gross income.

What does the bible say about giving in this age?

Thanks,

Josh

Audio Messages

sealed — Sun, 29 Jun 2008 23:52:06 GMT

Our audio host "Message Share" was attacked by a nasty virus. Their last update stated that the new server should be back up toward the end of next week. Please continue to check back often. We apologize for the downtime and thank you for your interest in our studies.

New Testament

Michael — Tue, 12 Feb 2008 22:55:55 GMT

I have a question about Paul's statement in 2 Corinthians 3 verse 6, that he is an able minister of the new testament. If we take that passage literally then wouldn't we need to believe him at his word? Yet grace believers don't accept that Paul was actually stating that he was a minister of the new testament. Instead, grace believers indicate that he couldn't be, because the new testament was to be given to Israel alone (Jeremiah 31 verse 31). Yet that's what Paul says in 2 Corinthians 3 verse 6. His own statement seems quite plain. Can you help me understand the grace view on this passage?

Did Jesus have long hair?

GaryTheCrusader — Mon, 04 Feb 2008 02:34:19 GMT

And is it a sin for a man to have long hair?

Matthew 16:18

PNichols — Wed, 30 Jan 2008 11:37:32 GMT

In this verse Christ says upon this rock I will build my church
Now some groups will say that it is revelation from God that the Church is built. How would you answer them?
Thanks

John The Baptist

PNichols — Wed, 30 Jan 2008 04:14:43 GMT

Was he or was he not Elijah?
He said he was not him.
Can you explian this for me?

Baptism of Paul

mwbtn — Wed, 12 Dec 2007 14:28:06 GMT

By the wording in the bible, how do we know Paul's baptism was of water or of the Spirit ? thanks

healing in this dispensation

Michael — Wed, 29 Aug 2007 18:15:02 GMT

I wanted to ask a question. I've heard that in this dispensation healing has been done away with. Well, of course God can heal but the power to heal by individuals has been done away with. The evidence for this is that if individuals could heal then they could go to hospitals and get everyone well. Aside from a particular individual being able to heal others (a "healer") what about faith for healing (and not be a "healer" per see)? Most people say faith for healing is not available anymore either since many persons have believed for healing but didn't receive it. Maybe we don't always have the faith we think we have for healing to take place. That is, unless we build our faith for healing (and not just think we have it) healing won't take place.

Doesn't Remittance mean Forgiveness?

Montana — Sat, 25 Aug 2007 16:10:49 GMT

On PalTalk most grace believers seem to think that remittance of sins is not the same as the forgiveness of sins. Can someone help explain this view to me?

Acts 9:5

midactsdispensationalist — Sun, 05 Aug 2007 22:45:09 GMT

What did Jesus mean when he asked is it hard for thee to kick against the pricks?

God won't make David's kingdom grow?

Jimmie — Mon, 18 Jun 2007 03:58:38 GMT

I love Old Testament history and found this passage puzzling--'Although my house be not so with God; yet he hath made me an everlasting covenant, ordered in all things, and sure: for this is all my salvation, and all my desire, although he make it not to grow.' This is found in 2 Samuel 23, v. 5. God makes an everlasting covenant but does not make David's house to grow. Why would God say he make it not to grow?

Deuteronomy 23 verse 18

Montana — Wed, 06 Jun 2007 15:05:14 GMT

Hi, thanks for the good bible board. My bible discussion group is stuck on a verse in Deuteronomy 23 verse 18. My bible states - Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore, or the price of a dog, into the house of the LORD thy God for any vow: for even both these are abomination unto the LORD thy God. What's wrong with selling a dog and giving some of the money to the church? No one can figure this out.

One Furnace?

JimZim — Tue, 05 Jun 2007 18:07:16 GMT

I was reading some of the written commentary notes on Daniel posted on this website. At Daniel 3:19 it's stated that "There must have more than one furnace because the king commanded them to heat furnace "one" seven times more than it was wont to be heated." "One" in this text is a cardinal number and when this Hebrew number appears before another number (seven) it simply means heat the furnace "x" or here seven times. Thus, Daniel 3:19--"should heat the furnace one"--does not suggest that there was more than one furnace. Also note that if the word the was not in the sentence the argument that there was more than one furnace would make more sense.